If you are using the first practice
exam - an error has been reported. For question 77 the correct answer
should have been "a" - production of calcitonin.
DEPARTMENT OF ANIMAL
& POULTRY SCIENCE
10-234 STRUCTURE OF
FARM ANIMALS
Practice Final #3
Prof. H.J.
Swatland
QUESTION
1
Where is
the flank of a pig relative to its shoulder?
A.
Ventral.
B.
Distal.
C.
Anterior.
D.
Dorsal.
E.
Posterior.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
2
Where
is the poll of a beef animal relative to the crest?
A.
Ventral.
B. Proximal
C.
Posterior.
D.
Anterior.
E.
Distal.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
3
In
which phylum would you place a shrimp?
A.
Platyhelminthes.
B.
Arthropoda.
C.
Echinodermata.
D.
Cnidaria.
E.
Annelida.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
4
Which
produces fine wool?
A.
Syncerus.
B.
Poephagus.
C. Bos
nomadicus.
D. Bos
indicus.
E. Sus
palustris.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
5
Pigs
from China centuries ago played an important part in the development of
modern
pigs from the wild boar of Europe. Which is the Chinese pig?
A. Sus
cristatus.
B. Sus
vittatus.
C. Sus
barbarus.
D. Sus
meridionalis.
E. Sus
scrofa.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
6
Sus
scrofa and S. vittatus may be identified how?
A. By
the number of sternebrae.
B. By
the number of rolls of turbinate bones in the nasal cavity.
C. By
the shape of the lacrimal bone.
D. By
the number of vertebrae.
E. By
the shape of the mandible.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
7
One of
the following relating to prenatal development of piglets is NOT
correct. Which
one?
A. If
its birth weight is less than about 1 kg, a pig will probably produce a
carcass
with poor muscling and a relatively
large amount of fat.
B.
Runts have fewer muscle fibres than normal-sized piglets.
C.
Competition among piglets in the sow's uterus is strongly affected by
their
position
in the uterus.
D.
Breeds with few piglets per litter tend to have embryos with low growth
rates.
E. Wild
pigs have a shorter gestation period than modern pigs.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
8
Many
methods are used for genetic engineering of DNA and the manipulation of
prenatal
development. Which would NOT be a
viable method for the transfer
of DNA?
A.
Injection into the nucleus by high-speed impact.
B.
Direct injection into the nucleus using a micropipette.
C.
Using a virus to transfer DNA.
D.
Movement of genes by neutron bombardment.
E.
Uptake of DNA after precipitation with calcium phosphate.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
9
What
forms a roof over the inner cell mass of a mammalian embryo?
A.
Amniotic folds.
B.
Allantoic folds.
C.
Blastocoel.
D.
Chorionic folds.
E.
Trophoblast.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
10
One of
the following statements relating to embryology is NOT correct. Which?
A. The
blastopore opens into the archenteron.
B. The
dorsal lip of the gastrula is part of the blastopore.
C. The
hollow nerve cord induces the formation of the notochord.
D.
Ectodermal cells exhibit competence for the formation of the nerve cord.
E. The
archenteron is the central cavity of the gastrula.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
11
What
indicates the future anterior to posterior axis of a chick embryo?
A.
Primitive streak.
B.
Epiblast.
C.
Hypoblast.
D.
Amniotic folds.
E.
Heart.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
12
The
most anterior and largest area in a fate map of the chick blastodisc is
destined
to become?
A.
Lateral plate mesoderm.
B.
Somite.
C.
Neural tissue.
D.
Epidermis.
E.
Notochord.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
13
Where
are the somites of a chick embryo?
A.
Along left and right sides of the neural tube.
B.
Embedded in pairs within the endoderm.
C. In
the limb buds.
D.
Arranged in pairs dorsal and ventral to the neural tube.
E.
Forming segmental blocks through the lateral plate mesoderm.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
14
Why is
the myd gene important in meat animals?
A.
Causes differentiation of myogenic cells.
B. Causes
development chondrogenic cells.
C.
Determines adult body size.
D.
Causes development of the neural tube.
E.
Terminates mitosis in the endoderm.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
15
What is
the embryological origin of the extraocular muscles in a chick?
A.
Lateral plate mesoderm.
B.
Sclerotome.
C.
Somitic mesoderm.
D.
Notochord.
E.
Neural ectoderm.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
16
Peripheral
nerves have a complex structure. Which occurs on the surface of a
peripheral
nerve?
A.
Myelin.
B.
Epineurium.
C.
Perineurium.
D.
Axonal plasma membranes.
E.
Endoneurium.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
17
Motor
neurons contain many structures in the perikaryon.
Which is NOT located
in the
perikaryon?
A.
Neurotubules with a diameter of 20 nm.
B.
Myelin.
C.
Nissl granules.
D.
Neurofilaments with a diameter of 10 nm.
E.
Cisternae of rough endoplasmic reticulum.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
18
What
initiates muscle contraction when released into the synaptic cleft?
A.
Acetylcholine.
B.
Acetylcholinesterase.
C.
Dendritic vesicles.
D.
Butylcholine.
E.
Butylcholinesterase.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
19
The
relative contribution of myotubes and secondary fibres to prenatal
muscle
development
in pigs has some important consequences in meat yield and meat
quality.
Approximately how many myofibres are derived from myotubes?
A. 80%
B. 100%
C. 40%
D. 60%
E. 20%
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
20
Prenatal
muscle development involves a number of different cellular structures.
Which
exhibits cell division?
A.
Premyoblast.
B.
Myofibre.
C.
Myoblast.
D.
Secondary fibre.
E.
Myotube.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
21
When a
premyoblast doubles its amount of DNA it is in which part of the
mitotic
cycle?
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. M
E. At
the quantal mitosis.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
22
If
sections are reacted for ATPase but there is NO pre-incubation - what
happens?
A.
Mitocondria are stained.
B.
Slow-contracting myofibres are not stained.
C.
Myofibres in the centres of fasciculi are unstained.
D. All
myofibres contain similar amounts of cobalt sulphide.
E.
Fast-contracting myofibres are not stained.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
23
Amylose
stained by iodine is used in which histochemical reaction?
A.
Phosphorylase.
B. SDH.
C.
Lipid staining.
D.
ATPase.
E.
Myofibre capillaries.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
24
The
redness of meat is related to the aerobic activity of living muscle.
Which
is NOT correct?
A.
Muscles with strong aerobic metabolism in the living animal use
blood-borne
oxidation
for complete oxidation of
substrates.
B.
Muscles with strong anaerobic activity in the living animal can manage
for a
while
without blood-borne oxygen.
C. Muscles
used for respiration and chewing have low levels of aerobic metabolism
in
the living animal.
D.
Muscle capillaries are located on the surfaces of myofibres and red
muscles
have
more capillaries than white muscles.
E.
Incomplete oxidation of muscle carbohydrates does not require oxygen
from
haemoglobin.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
25
What
does NOT happen if a noose is tightened around a motor axon?
A.
Decreased axonal diameter distally.
B. A
large distal swelling.
C. A
large swelling on the side of the noose towards the perikaryon.
D. A
small swelling on the side of the noose towards the muscle.
E. A
small distal swelling.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
26
Rapid
muscle growth is important for efficient meat production. Which is
NOT
correct for young animals?
A.
Recruitment of new white myofibres contributes to rapid muscle growth.
B. Red
myofibres are required for postural muscle activity in young animals and
they
make the largest contribution to rapid
muscle growth.
C. All
myofibres exhibit hypertrophy in fast-growing young meat animals.
D.
Rapid muscle growth may not contribute much to meat quality because it
mostly
originates from white myofibres.
E. Rapid
muscle growth in young meat animals receives a major contribution from
hypertrophy
of white myofibres.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
27
Theodore
Schwann proved something very important for students of animal
structure. Which
statement is NOT correct?
A.
Schwann proved all animal bodies are an assembly of single cells - most
of
which
are mononucleate.
B.
Schwann discovered myotubes in the prenatal development of pig muscle.
C.
Schwann showed that multinucleate myofibres were derived by
multiplication
of
nuclei without division of the
cytoplasm.
D.
Schwann discovered secondary fibres in the prenatal development of pig
muscle.
E. The
cells insulating axons with myelin are called Schwann cells.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
28
How
would you describe rigor mortis in beef?
A. When
ATP is used in the polymerization of G-actin.
B. The
increase in muscle extensibility which occurs after slaughter.
C. When
ATP is resynthesized from ADP and causes the meat to soften.
D. When
ATP is depleted and myosin molecule heads lock onto actin.
E. Loss
of muscle extensibility caused by coagulation of myosin.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
29
The
H-zone is?
A.
Between the ends of thin myofilaments half way down the A band.
B.
Between the ends of thin myofilaments where they attach to the Z-line.
C. Part
of the Z-line.
D.
Between the ends of thick myofilaments half way down the A band.
E.
Between the ends of thick myofilaments half way down the I band.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
30
Where
along the sarcomere do BOTH thick and thin myofilaments appear in
RELAXED
muscle?
A. At
the edges of the A band.
B. In
the H-zone.
C. In
the I band.
D. In
the Z-line.
E. At
the midlength of the A band.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
31
In
pork, where do transverse tubules occur along the length of the
sarcomere?
A. In
the H zone.
B. At
the midlength of the I band.
C. At
the midlength of the A band.
D. At
the Z-line.
E. At
the A-I junction.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
32
Which
protein makes the greatest contribution to the weight of lean beef?
A. Troponin
B.
Myosin
C.
Tropomyosin
D.
Desmin.
E.
Actin
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
33
If a
myofibre is relaxed, where is its tropomyosin located?
A. In
the groove of the thin myofilament.
B. On
the surface of the thick myofilament between myosin molecule heads.
C.
Forming a cross-bridge between actin and myosin.
D. In
the groove on the thick myofilament.
E. Out
of the groove in the thin myofilament.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
34
Which
is NOT correct in relation to the activation of phosphorylase in a
stressed
pig?
A.
Phosphorylase b kinase a activates phosphorylase in the presence of
magnesium
ions
B.
Adrenaline activates adenyl cyclase.
C.
Protein kinase activates phosphorylase b kinase b
D.
Cyclic AMP activates protein kinase.
E.
Adenyl cyclase produces ATP from cyclic AMP.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
35
Glycogenin
is?
A.
Glucose units released by phosphorylase
B.
Glucose units released by debranching enzyme
C. An
enzyme responsible for glycogenolysis.
D. A
polysaccharide made of glucose units.
E. A
protein acting as the starting point for a new glycogen granule.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
36
What is
the basic reason meat normally becomes acidic after an animal has
been
slaughtered?
A. To
enable the reoxidation of NADH and the continuation of glycolysis.
B.
Lactic acid is produced by bacterial fermentation.
C. To
enable oxidative phosphorylation to continue.
D.
Because mitochondria complete the Krebs cycle.
E.
Because proteins are broken down to release pyruvic acid.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
37
Electrical
stimulation of beef carcasses is used in many Ontario abattoirs.
But
which has NO effect on the electrical resistance of the carcass?
A.
Carcass fatness.
B.
Distance between electrodes.
C. Time
lapse between exsanguination and stimulation.
D.
Electrode location.
E.
Whether or not the animal struggles during slaughter.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
38
Which
of the following statements relating to electrical stimulation of meat
is NOT
correct?
A.
Electrical stimulation may give meat a brighter than normal appearance.
B.
Electrical stimulation may activate proteolytic enzymes in meat.
C.
Electrical stimulation is not used on lamb because lamb seldom becomes
tough.
D.
Electrical stimulation does not work on meat unless the pH declines
post
mortem.
E.
Electrical stimulation may cause myofibre fracture.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
39
When a
muscle strip in a rigorometer can still re-synthesize ATP - what is
the
name given to that period on a rigorometer output?
A.
Rapid phase.
B.
Delay period.
C.
Post-rigor phase.
D.
Contracting phase.
E. Cold
shortening phase.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
40
Which
is an unlikely cause of PSE if a pig is stress-resistant?
A. Cold
water shower before slaughter.
B. Use
of an electric prod to move pigs in the abattoir before slaughter.
C.
Concussion with a captive bolt causing major post mortem reflex
activity.
D.
Mixing pigs so they fight before slaughter.
E. Cold
winter weather.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
41
Why is
the early post mortem production of excessive lactate likely to
cause
PSE?
A. It
increases exsanguination and reduces the haemoglobin content of the
meat.
B. It
increases the negative electrostatic repulsion between myofilaments.
C.
Myofibrillar proteins are still hot.
D. It
decreases light scattering thus making meat pale.
E.
Mitochondria still have oxygen and use the lactate aerobically.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
42
If beef
becomes dark-cutting - what can you deduce about the animal which
produced
it?
A. It
was well fed and resistant to stress.
B. It
had excessive reflex activity during slaughter.
C. It
was not properly stunned before exsanguination.
D. It
struggled during slaughter.
E. It
entered the abattoir without much glycogen in its muscles.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
43
Which
would be the most reliable indicator of dark-cutting beef?
A. Very
low %Y.
B. A shift
in the isobestic point.
C. Very
low chromaticity coordinate y.
D. Very
low chromaticity coordinate x.
E. Very
high chromaticity coordinate y.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
44
Which
is NOT correct in relation to meat colour?
A.
Scattering decreases the length of the light path through the meat.
B. Meat
with a low pH is generally more pale than meat with a high pH.
C.
Paleness related to pH is caused by light scattering.
D.
Sarcoplasmic proteins may be precipitated in severe PSE pork.
E. The
range in colour from red to brown originates from myofibrils.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
45
There
are numerous causes of the development of heat stable pink pigments in
cooked
meat. Which of the following is the
least likely to be involved?
A.
Breed of the animal.
B. High
levels of nitrites in added spices.
C.
Nitric oxide in oven gases.
D.
Nitrite in ground water obtained from a well.
E.
Carbon monoxide inhaled by animals from truck exhaust fumes.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
46
Which
biochemical type of collagen forms reticular fibres?
A.
Heparin sulphate.
B. Type
III.
C. Type
II.
D. Type
IV.
E. Type
I.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
47
Which
is used to determine the collagen content of meat?
A.
Alanine.
B.
Hydroxyproline.
C.
Glutamic acid.
D.
Glycine.
E.
Desmosine.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
48
Why are
Type I collagen fibres transversely striated when seen in a typical
electron
micrograph?
A.
Because collagen fibres are fluorescent.
B.
Because collagen fibres are birefringent.
C.
Tropocollagen molecules slide past each other like thick and thin
myofilaments
in
sarcomeres of transverse striated
myofibres.
D.
Heavy metal stains typically fill the gaps between the ends of
tropocollagen
molecules.
E.
Stains used in electron microscopy show the central axis of the triple
helix
of
alpha chains in each tropocollagen
molecule.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
49
One of
the following methods of temperature measurement should not be used to
judge
the internal temperature reached while cooking beef hamburger. Which?
A.
Infrared thermometer.
B.
Thermistor probe.
C.
Quartz optical fibre probe with a fluorescent heat-sensor tip.
D.
Thermocouple probe.
E.
Callendar's thermometer probe.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
50
Well-cooked
stewing beef often falls into chunks.
Where is the tensile failure?
A.
Endomysial elastin fibres.
B.
Within sarcomeres.
C.
Epimysial reticular fibres.
D.
Overlap of thick and thin myofilaments.
E.
Perimysial collagen fibres.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
51
Which
of the following does NOT contribute to the brown colour of well cooked
beef?
A.
Denatured globin nicotinamide hemichrome
B.
Haematin di-imadazole complexes
C.
Metmyochromogen
D.
Maillard reaction products
E.
Metmyoglobin
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
52
What is
muscular steatosis?
A. An
enlargement of subcutaneous fat deposits over the animal's hindquarters.
B. Meat
without much taste because it is very lean.
C.
Omental fat not removed in the abattoir.
D.
Replacement of myofibres by adipose cells.
E.
Expansion of intermuscular fat.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
53
Fat
deposition may follow a complex pattern in pigs. Which
is NOT correct?
A. Lean
breeds may have a greater ability to mobilize fat than fat breeds.
B. The
deepest layer of subcutaneous fat may respond more readily than the
outer
layer
for selection against fat deposition.
C.
Fibroblast-like cells contribute to fat accumulation in pigs.
D.
Newborn pigs have a large amount of fat relative to other animals.
E.
Fatness is a highly heritable trait in pigs.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
54
Which
of the following statements relating to adipose tissue in meat animals
is NOT
correct?
A.
Mature adipose cells have very little cytoplasm.
B.
Mature adipose cells have only one nucleus and this never divides.
C. The
water content of fat is much lower than that of lean muscle.
D.
Adipose cells are surrounded by a meshwork of Type III collagen fibres.
E.
Adipose tissue has a poor circulation because it is primarily a storage
tissue.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
55
Fat
quality in pork chops is very important commercially.
Which is NOT true?
A.
Linoleic acid is used for feeding pigs because it makes the fat firm
and white.
B. The
aroma of fish oil in a pig's diet may be carried onward into the pig's
fat.
C.
Greasy pork fat has a low melting point.
D.
Auto-oxidation and the formation of unpleasant odours increases when
large
numbers
of the bonds in fatty acids are
unsaturated.
E.
Omega-3 fatty acids are thought beneficial by many consumers but their
presence
in pork fat may cause unpleasant
odours after storage.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
56
What do
reticuloendothelial cells release?
A. Low
density lipoproteins
B. New
synthesized triglyceride
C. High
density lipoproteins
D.
Colipase
E. Very
low density lipoproteins
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
57
Where
does the glycerol originate when digested fatty acids are reassembled to
form
triglyceride in a porcine adipose cell?
A. It
is obtained from reticuloendothelial cells.
B. It
is formed by restructuring fatty acids.
C. It
is synthesized by lipoprotein lipase.
D. It
is synthesized from glucose within the adipose cell.
E. It
is formed from glycerol taken up by the adipose cell.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
58
Bone
density in cattle increases with age and varies between breeds. This
creates
problems for which method of measuring fatness in meat animals?
A.
Water content determined by antipyrin
B.
Specific gravity
C. NMR
D.
Photogrammetry
E. CAT
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
59
One
growth equation generates a curve which is asymmetrical, sigmoidal
and
reaches an asymptote. Which?
A.
Brody's
B.
Autocatalytic
C. von
Bertalanffy
D.
Robertson's
E.
Time-based
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
60
Animal
growth is extremely important both scientifically and commercially.
Which
is NOT correct?
A. The
half lives of major proteins in meat are mostly several days in
duration.
B. von
Bertallanffy's growth equation is based on the balance of catabolism and
anabolism.
C. All
living animals exhibit both anabolism and catabolism - even when their
growth
is complete.
D.
Animal growth occurs when catabolism exceeds anabolism.
E. When
animals are at a constant weight: catabolism = anabolism.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
61
Allometric
growth is one of many aspects of animal growth. Which
is NOT true?
A. One
of the final aspects of allometric growth in pigs is the development of
a
convex shape in the ham.
B. Meat
animals at birth have slender limbs relative to adults.
C.
Allometric analysis shows ontogenetic changes but not changes produced
by
selective
breeding (phylogenetic changes).
D. Meat
animals at birth have a larger relative size of the head compared to
adult
animals.
E. One
of the final aspects of allometric growth in cattle is the deposition of
fat
in high-priced cuts of meat.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
62
Growth
in cattle occurs in waves through the body.
Where is the final meeting
point
of the two most important waves?
(Important for meat production).
A. At
the hock.
B. At
the crest.
C. At
the scapula.
D.
Posterior lumbar region.
E.
Anterior lumbar region.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
63
Which
of the following regions of the beef carcass contains muscle groups
with
the highest allometric growth ratios?
A.
Shoulder
B.
Paunch
C.
Elbow
D.
Thigh
E. Loin
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
64
Which
has the highest priority to receive nutrients in Hammond's model for
energy
partitioning?
A. Bone
B.
Visceral fat
C.
Central nervous system
D.
Subcutaneous fat
E.
Muscle
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
65
Which
of the following general statements relating to animal growth is NOT
correct?
A.
Animals seem to 'know' what weight they should be at a certain age.
B.
Stress increases fat deposition.
C.
Animals on a restricted diet often use proteins as a source of energy.
D.
Insulin activates the energy capturing system of cells.
E. The
action of insulin is balanced against the number of insulin receptors
and
their
capacity for binding insulin.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
66
What is
the respiratory quotient?
A.
Volume of carbon dioxide exhaled divided by the volume of oxygen used.
B. The
volume of carbon dioxide and water vapour exhaled divided by the volume
of
oxygen inhaled.
C. The
volume of water vapour exhaled divided by the volume of oxygen used.
D. The
volume of oxygen inhaled divided by the amount of carbon dioxide
inhaled.
E. The
volume of urea in the urine divided by the amount of ammonia removed.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
67
Satellite
cells are identified several ways.
Which feature is NOT true for
satellite
cells?
A. They
are usually located in a depression on the myofibre surface.
B. They
have a small amount of acidophilic cytoplasm.
C. The
cytoplasm of satellite cells is separated from the cytoplasm (=
sarcoplasm)
of
myofibres by TWO cell membranes.
D.
Their nucleoli are difficult to see.
E. They
are beneath the endomysium.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
68
New
myofibre nuclei are formed when myofibres regenerate.
Where do they
come
from?
A.
Exisiting myofibre nuclei.
B.
Fibroblasts.
C.
Satellite cells.
D.
Pericytes.
E.
Endothelial cells.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
69
In the
radial growth of myofibres, where are new myofilaments added?
A. Only
at the ends of myofibres.
B. At
the neuromuscular junction.
C. In
the central axis of myofibrils.
D. Only
under the cell membrane of the myofibre.
E.
Around the outside of myofibrils.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
70
How
would you describe the relative lengths of extramuscular tendon and
muscle
belly
during growth of a pig?
A. The
length of the muscle belly increases at a faster rate than that of the
extramuscular
tendon.
B.
Extramuscular tendon length grows at the same rate as the length of the
muscle
belly.
C. The
extramuscular tendon shows more longitudinal growth than the muscle
belly.
D.
There is no relationship between the length of the belly of a muscle
and the
length
of its extramuscular tendon.
E.
There is no relationship between the length of the belly of a muscle
and the
length
of its intramuscular tendon.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
71
The
complexity of muscle structure in meat animals makes it difficult to
measure
longitudinal growth in myofibres - although it is important in meat
production.
Which is NOT true?
A.
Pennate muscles have myofibres attached at an angle - often to an
intramuscular
tendon.
B. Once
formed, myofilaments do not grow in length.
C. When
myofibres grow in length, new sarcomeres are always added at the ENDS
of
the myofibres.
D. The
length of myofibres is determined from the length of the fasciculi in
which
they
are located.
E. When
myofibrils grow in length, new sarcomeres are always added to the ENDS
of
the myofibrils.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
72
What is
the explanation for increases found in the number of myofibres at the
midlength
of parallel-fibred muscles during the growth of pigs?
A.
Formation of new myofibres from secondary fibres.
B.
Growth of intrafascicularly terminating myofibres at a faster rate than
the
overall
length of the muscle.
C.
Formation of new myofibres from myotubes.
D.
Decreases in fascicular length.
E.
Formation of new myofibres from myoblasts.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
73
What
are intrafusal myofibres?
A. The
myofibres which rotate the eyeball.
B.
Myofibres located in the central axis of their fasciculi.
C. Very
small myofibres inside neuromuscular spindles.
D.
Myofibres which terminate intrafascicularly.
E. The
extra myofibres causing muscle enlargement in double-muscled cattle.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
74
Which
muscle does NOT develop extra myofibres in double-muscled cattle?
A.
Sartorius muscle.
B.
Tongue muscle.
C.
Extraocular muscle.
D.
Cutaneous muscle under the skin.
E.
Longissimus dorsi.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
75
How
would you describe reproductive performance in double-muscled cattle?
A.
Shorter gestation period.
B. High
lactation.
C.
Underdevelopment of the reproductive tract in both sexes.
D. Wide
pelvic opening in the cow.
E. Good
nursing of the calf.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
76
The
shaft of the femur in a pork carcass is a?
A.
Symphysis.
B.
Condyle.
C.
Epiphysis.
D.
Epiphyseal plate.
E.
Diaphysis.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
77
Which
is the best description for the canaliculi found in bone?
A. Very
small tubes through the bone matrix between lacunae.
B.
Structures connecting the periostium to the bone matrix.
C. The
canals by which arteries pass through compact bone.
D. The
cavity in which osteocytes are located.
E. The
large canal containing an artery in the axis of a Haversian system.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
78
What is
the physiological effect of calcitonin?
A.
Activates osteocytes.
B.
Increases blood calcium.
C.
Inhibits osteoclasts.
D.
Activates osteoclasts.
E.
Increases piezoelectric activity.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
79
Somatomedin
C is the same as?
A.
IGF-1
B.
IGFBP
C.
IGF-2
D.
Somatostatin
E. STH
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
80
Which is
produced by the liver?
A.
Somatomedin.
B. STH
C.
Somatotropic hormone.
D.
Growth hormone.
E.
Somatotrophin.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
81
Which
of the following is NOT true in relation to cortisol?
A.
Cortisol production is regulated by ACTH.
B.
Cortisol production is affected by CRF.
C.
There is not much free or unbound cortisol in the blood of rested meat
animals.
D.
Cortisol is a peptide hormone acting on the myofibre membrane.
E.
Cortisol is a glucocorticoid.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
82
The
primary decision in beef grading is?
A.
Subcutaneous fat depth.
B.
Animal age revealed by ossification.
C. Fat
colour.
D.
Longissimus thoracis area.
E.
Colour of the meat.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
83
What is
the typical result of a high level of carotene in a beef animal's diet?
A.
Dark-cutting beef.
B.
Increased area of Longissimus dorsi.
C.
Yellow fat.
D.
Excessive subcutaneous fat.
E.
Advanced ossification.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
84
In
Canada, which primal cut of beef contains the cervical vertebrae?
A. Rib.
B.
Chuck.
C.
Plate.
D.
Brisket.
E.
Sticking.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
85
There
is some confusion about the origin of sweetbreads and even an edition
of the
Oxford English Dictionary is incorrect.
What are they?
A.
Large lymph nodes.
B.
Pancreas.
C.
Thyroid gland.
D.
Adrenal gland.
E.
Thymus gland.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
86
One of
the following statements relating to evisceration of cattle in an
abattoir
is correct. Which one?
A. The
hide is removed as rapidly as possible.
Cuts through the hide are not a
serious
problem because not much leather is
produced in Canada any more.
B. A
saw cut is made through the hide and the sternum to facilitate removal
of
the
lungs.
C. The
first step after sticking is the removal of the head and lower jaw, with
the
hide from that region left hanging on
the remainder of the hide still
covering
the carcass.
D. The
anus is not closed off because the animal is now suspended by one
hindlimb
and
there is no risk of faecal material
escaping onto the meat of the carcass.
E. The
intestines are removed before the penis or udder tissue which is left
hanging
to one side for removal at a later
time.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
87
Antemortem
inspection of beef is an important part of meat inspection.
Which
of the following statements is not correct?
A.
Animals unable to walk normally are separated from the others and
slaughtered
separately.
B.
Animals with obvious signs of sickness are separated from all healthy
animals
and
slaughtered separately.
C.
Antemortem inspection of abattoir animals is important for the
detection of
serious
animal diseases in the general
population.
D. The
meat inspector is not responsible for ensuring cattle are slaughtered
humanely
because this is the responsibility
of the local humane society.
E. A
zoonosis is a disease of animals which may be transmitted to humans,
and
the plural is zoonoses.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
88
Which
is the main lymph node of the pig's head inspected post-mortem?
A.
Suborbital.
B.
Submaxillary.
C.
Salivary.
D.
Subclavian.
E.
Retropharyngeal.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
89
Blood
from abattoir animals such as the pig can be used for human consumption.
But
there are many complexities involved.
Which statement is NOT correct?
A. Pig
blood contains easily assimilated iron and may be used for a variety of
human
and pet foods.
B.
Blood proteins have a high water-binding capacity which is useful in the
formulation
of convenience foods.
C.
Plasma is a yellow fluid and may be dried to a powder for use in human
food.
D.
Blood proteins have a high nutritional value and are used after
isolation in
a
variety of different food product.
E. Red
blood cells shrink if water is added to blood and this is how they are
removed
in the production of blood plasma
products.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
90
Which
of the following statements relating to abattoir stunning for pigs is
NOT
correct?
A. The
typical order of steps in pig slaughter is as follows:- (1) stunning;
(2)
hoist the pig up by one hindlimb using
a shackling chain; and (2)
exsanguinate.
B. Pigs
may be stunned by concussion using a captive bolt pistol.
The stunner is
normally
used in the midline of the skull
posterior to the eyes over the frontal
bones.
C. Pigs
may be stunned using 65% carbon dioxide gas.
Carbon dioxide gas is
heavier
than air and the pigs are exposed
to the gas by taking them into
a
tunnel or pit. The pigs would recover
consciousness if not exsanguinated
after
leaving the stunner.
D. Pigs
may be stunned electrically using a direct current across the brain or
from
the brain along the spinal cord.
E. In
carbon dioxide stunning of pigs it is essential to keep the gas level
at 65%
and
in electrical stunning of pigs it is
essential to keep the electrodes clean.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
91
Wool is
an important product of sheep production. Which is NOT correct?
A. Wool
is formed by epithelial cells of a papilla at the base of a hair
follicle.
B. Both
wool and pig's bristles are made of the same protein - keratin.
C. Cross-linking
of wool protein is by disulphide bonds which is why sulphur is
important
in the nutrition of wool sheep.
D. Wavy
wool fibres of a fleece have an enlarged medulla which is very soft.
E. Each
hair follicle develops from an inpushing of the epidermis.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
92
In
Ontario the fresh-water snail Lymnaea bulimoides is the intermediate
host
for an important parasite of our farm animals.
Which parasite?
A.
Taenia solium.
B.
Taenia saginata.
C.
Fasciola hepatica.
D.
Echinococcus granulosus.
E.
Trichinella spiralis.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
93
Which
of the following statements relating to lamb slaughter is NOT correct?
A. Both
internal visceral fat and cod fat are removed from lamb carcasses.
B. A
shrink loss of 12% for a lamb carcass held at 2 degrees C for 24 hours
would
not
be regarded as unusual because the lamb
has a high surface to volume ratio
and
may not have much subcutaneous fat to
prevent evaporation.
C. The
carotid lymph nodes are inspected post-mortem.
D. A
typical dressing percentage for lambs is 45 to 50%
E. The
kidneys are regarded as part of the carcass.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
94
Poultry
giblets are collected in the abattoir for further processing or
to be
passed to the consumer. Which is NOT
part of the giblets?
A.
Gizzard wall.
B.
Kidneys.
C.
Liver.
D.
Heart.
E.
Neck.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
95
Which
of the following best describes the reproductive system of a rooster?
A. The
rooster has a long and highly coiled vas deferens on each side of the
body
opening
directly into the cloaca.
B. A
rooster normally has only one testis derived from the left side. But it is
located
in the midline of the bird under
the vertebral column near the
kidneys.
C. The
rooster differs from male farm mammals in not having an epididymis
located
on
the testis.
D. A
rooster has two testes located near the kidneys. The
vas deferens from the
left
side joins the vas deferens from the
right side and they open into the
cloaca
on a single papilla.
E. A
rooster has two testes located next to the cloaca and connected to it by
the
vas deferens.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
96
The
caecum has an important function in the gut of a rooster.
Which of the
following
is CORRECT?
A. The
pancreas drains directly into the single large caecum.
B.
There are two caeca located at the end of the small intestine.
C.
There is a large caecum at the junction of the small and large
intestines.
D.
There are two small caeca located at the end of the large intestine.
E.
There is one caecum just before the cloaca.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
97
Which
of the following statements relating to the nervous system is NOT
correct?
A. The
outermost layers of the brain are grey.
B. The
membranes covering the brain are called the meninges.
C. The
outermost layers of the spinal cord are grey.
D. The
innermost layers of the brain are white.
E. The
pia mater is below the dura mater.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
98
What
part of the brain controls heart rate?
A.
Cerebral hemisphere.
B.
Hypothalamus.
C.
Medulla oblongata.
D.
Thalamus.
E.
Cerebellum.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
99
The
pig's brain is divided into a number of major parts which are easily
visible. But
also physiological experiments reveal
the functions of
various
parts. Where is the motor cortex of the
pig located?
A.
Thalamus.
B.
Medulla oblongata.
C.
Hypothalamus.
D.
Cerebrum.
E.
Cerebellum.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
100
Which
glands are strongly related to pheromone production in male pigs?
A.
Abnormal development of mammary glands.
B.
Bulbourethral glands
C.
Urethral lymph gland.
D.
Cavernosus glands.
E.
Seminal vesicles.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
101
Which
of the following statements relating to the reproductive system of
the
bull is NOT correct?
A.
Cavernosus muscles involved in extension of the penis are attached half
way
along
the sigmoid flexure.
B. The
seminal vesicles receive spermatozoa and are located on the bladder.
C. The
bull's penis has a large sigmoid flexure to enable extension.
D. The
urethra receives spermatozoa from the seminal vesicles.
E. The
epididymis is located on the surface of the testis and leads to the
vas
deferens.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
102
The
cremaster muscle has a unique function.
What is it?
A.
Raises the tail when the male is mating.
B. Acts
as a sphincter to reduce the diameter of the vagina after mating.
C.
Causes arching of the sow's back during mating.
D.
Raises the testes in the scrotum.
E.
Retracts the penis in the boar but not in the bull or ram.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
103
The heart
is made of a special type of muscle.
What is the best description
of its
histology?
A.
Striated, branched, multinucleated fibres.
B.
Layers of mononucleate cells.
C.
Unbranched fibres composed of mononucleated cells.
D.
Branched fibres composed of cells which usually have one nucleus. Cells at
branch
points may have two nuclei.
E.
Unbranched, multinucleated, striated fibres.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
104
In the
nephron of a meat animal such as the pig, where would you expect to
find
the proximal convoluted tubule?
A. In
the glomerulus of the nephron.
B.
Immediately connected with the collecting tubule.
C. In
the Bowman's capsule.
D. In
the pyramid of the kidney.
E.
Immediately before the loop of Henle.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
105
What
pumps blood through the bicuspid valve in the the bovine heart?
A.
Right ventricle.
B. Left
atrium.
C.
Right atrium.
D. No
chamber pumps blood through the bicuspid valve because it is the valve
that
prevents
back-flow into the vena cava.
E. Left
ventricle.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
106
The
trapezius in the sheep is located where?
A. A
strap-like muscle located laterally in the neck and thus severed during
slaughtering.
B.
Dorsal to the rhomboideus.
C.
Ventral to the rhomboideus.
D. In
the deep groove on the dorsal and lateral part of the scapula.
E.
Medial to the scapula.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
107
Name a
muscle overlying the sternum.
A.
Biceps brachii.
B.
Rhomboideus.
C.
Trapezius.
D.
Pectoralis profundus.
E.
Triceps brachii.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
108
Which
of the following statements relating to the forelimb skeleton of
meat
animals is NOT correct?
A. The
ball and socket joint between the scapula and the humerus is relatively
flat
- at least compared to the ball and
socket joint in the hindlimb.
B. The
olecranon is located on the distal end of the ulna.
C. The
radius is shorter than the ulna.
D. The
prominent ridge located laterally on the scapula is called the spine
of
the scapula.
E. The
radius is parallel to the ulna.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
109
In the
muscles of a whole beef round, which is a thin strap-like muscle
located
anteriorly to the gracilis?
A.
Semimembranosus.
B.
Rectus femoris.
C.
Semitendinosus.
D.
Pectineus.
E.
Sartorius.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
110
Which
muscle is NOT in contact with gracilis in the beef hindlimb?
A.
Sartorius.
B.
Semimembranosus.
C.
Adductor.
D.
Semitendinosus.
E.
Pectineus.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
111
Beef
animals have a complex pelvic structure.
But which does NOT occur on
the
pelvis?
A.
Symphysis pubis.
B.
Greater sciatic notch.
C.
Glenoid cavity.
D.
Obturator foramen.
E.
Acetabulum.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
112
The
chicken has digits on its wings and legs.
What is the total number?
A. 14
B. 8
C. 10
D. 16
E. 12
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
113
Which
is a major weight-bearing bone in the chicken leg distal and in contact
with
the patella?
A.
Tarsometatarsus.
B.
Femur.
C.
Tarsus.
D.
Fibula.
E.
Tibiotarsus.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
114
Which
of the following is a feature of the chicken pelvis NOT found in the
beef
pelvis?
A. Lack
of a symphysis pubis.
B.
Fusion between the ilium and pubis.
C.
Fusion between the pubis and ischium.
D.
Fusion between the ilium and certain sacral vertebrae.
E. An
acetabulum.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
115
The
cores of egg yolks are present in the ovary of the newly hatched hen.
How
long does it take for the rest of the egg to develop?
A. 7
hours.
B. 14
days.
C. 1
day.
D. 14
hours.
E. 7
days.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
116
What
would be the size of an egg weighing 56 grams?
A.
Extra large.
B.
Peewee.
C.
Large.
D.
Small.
E.
Medium.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION
117
The
blastoderm of a hen's egg occurs where?
A. In
the centre of the yolk.
B. On
the chalazae.
C. In
the germinal disc.
D. In
the air cell.
E. In
the chalaziferous layer.
---------------------------------------------------
Exam ID
= 5 Apr 2006 13:23:19
Exam ID
= 5 Apr 2006 13:23:19
Practice
Final #3
*************************ANSWERS**************************
1 A
2 D
3 B
4 B
5 B
6 C
7 E
8 D
9 A
10 C
11 A
12 D
13 A
14 A
15 C
16 B
17 B
18 A
19 E
20 A
21 B
22 D
23 A
24 C
25 B
26 B
27 C
28 D
29 A
30 A
31 E
32 B
33 E
34 E
35 E
36 A
37 E
38 C
39 B
40 E
41 C
42 E
43 A
44 E
45 A
46 B
47 B
48 D
49 A
50 E
51 E
52 D
53 D
54 E
55 A
56 C
57 D
58 B
59 C
60 D
61 C
62 D
63 B
64 C
65 B
66 A
67 B
68 C
69 E
70 B
71 D
72 B
73 C
74 C
75 C
76 E
77 A
78 C
79 A
80 A
81 D
82 B
83 C
84 B
85 E
86 C
87 D
88 B
89 E
90 D
91 D
92 C
93 B
94 B
95 A
96 B
97 C
98 C
99 D
100 B
101 A
102 D
103 D
104 E
105 B
106 B
107 D
108 B
109 E
110 D
111 C
112 A
113 E
114 A
115 B
116 C
117 C
Exam ID
= 5 Apr 2006 13:23:19
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